I maintain that there is no outright condemnation of slavery in the Bible. The Bible merey regulates it, as in:
Exodus 22:
Anyone who steals must certainly make restitution, but if they have nothing, they must be sold to pay for their theft.
Deureronomy 21:
When you go to war against your enemies and the Lord your God delivers them into your hands and you take captives, if you notice among the captives a beautiful woman and are attracted to her, you may take her as your wife. Bring her into your home and have her shave her head, trim her nails and put aside the clothes she was wearing when captured. After she has lived in your house and mourned her father and mother for a full month, then you may go to her and be her husband and she shall be your wife. If you are not pleased with her, let her go wherever she wishes. You must not sell her or treat her as a slave, since you have dishonored her. [Comment: regulation of slavery, not condemnation]
Leviticus 25:
Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly.
Where should we draw the line between the two?
My point was not the question how exactly the earth was populated. My point was that if you adhere to a literal interpretation of the Bible, then you have to admit that it was populated through incestuous behavior. Now how does that relate to condemnation of homosexulaity? What would you say is worse?
You're distinguishing here between Old Testamentic times and modern times. You should use this argument not just as an apology for what Elisha did, but also as an argument in favor of the claim that homosexuality is not necessarily a sin here and now (anymore).




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